PLE-4278
A 32-year-old woman comes for a follow-up examination 1 week after a Pap smear showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old woman comes for a follow-up examination 1 week after a Pap smear showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?