PLE-4446

A 28 year-old G3P2 (2002) at 38 weeks and 4 days AOG came in due to vaginal bleeding. Her first pregnancy was delivered via low-transverse cesarean section due to malpresentation. For the second pregnancy, she delivered vaginally a healthy baby girl. At present, IE findings are: 5 cm dilated, 80% effaced, cephalic, station -2, intact bag of water. Which factor makes this patient a candidate for normal spontaneous delivery?