PLE-2088
A 40-year-old asymptomatic patient has just completed a 1-week treatment for CAP-moderate risk. Upon follow-up, you requested a chest X-ray, which still shows noted lobar infiltrates. What would be your next step of management?
A 40-year-old asymptomatic patient has just completed a 1-week treatment for CAP-moderate risk. Upon follow-up, you requested a chest X-ray, which still shows noted lobar infiltrates. What would be your next step of management?