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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman presents with increasing numbness of the fourth and fifth digits...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with increasing numbness of the fourth and fifth digits on her right hand. On examination, it is noticed that she has a wasted hypothenar eminence, inability to abduct the thumb, and a characteristic claw hand. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers and controlling the hypothenar muscles, dorsal interosseous muscles, and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. When someone has claw hand, their ring and little fingers are extended at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed at the interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old female patient comes in for a mass near the nipple-areolar complex...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient comes in for a mass near the nipple-areolar complex of the right breast. Which of the following lymph nodes would most likely be affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary

      Explanation:

      The lymph nodes that are most likely to be affected in a case like this are the axillary lymph nodes. The axillary lymph nodes are located in the armpit area and are responsible for draining lymph fluid from the breast tissue. When there is a mass or tumor near the nipple areolar complex of the breast, it is common for cancer cells to spread to the nearby axillary lymph nodes. This is because the lymphatic vessels in the breast drain into the axillary lymph nodes, making them a common site for metastasis in breast cancer. Therefore, in a 50-year-old female patient with a mass near the nipple areolar complex of the right breast, the axillary lymph nodes on the right side would be the most likely to be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the oblique vein of Marshall a remnant of? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the oblique vein of Marshall a remnant of?

      Your Answer: Right SVC

      Correct Answer: Left SVC

      Explanation:

      The oblique vein of Marshall is a remnant of the left superior vena cava (SVC). During fetal development, there are two SVCs – a left and a right. However, as the heart develops, the left SVC typically regresses and disappears, while the right SVC becomes the main vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium of the heart. In some individuals, a small portion of the left SVC persists and forms the oblique vein of Marshall. This vein runs along the posterior surface of the heart and connects the coronary sinus (a vein that drains blood from the heart muscle) to the left atrium. It is named after John Marshall, the anatomist who first described it.The oblique vein of Marshall is not functionally significant in most individuals and does not play a major role in blood circulation. However, it can occasionally be involved in certain cardiac arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, and may be targeted during certain cardiac procedures, such as ablation therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following veins is most likely to experience reduced blood flow...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins is most likely to experience reduced blood flow due to a thrombosis in the popliteal vein?

      Your Answer: Femoral

      Explanation:

      The femoral vein receives blood from the popliteal vein, causing a decrease in blood flow. The upper section of the femoral vein is where the great saphenous vein drains into. Additionally, other veins empty into the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old basketball player falls while rebounding and is unable to run and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old basketball player falls while rebounding and is unable to run and jump. On physical examination, he has pain and weakness when extending his thigh and flexing his leg. Which muscle involved in both movements is most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Gracilis

      Correct Answer: Semitendinosus

      Explanation:

      The semitendinosus muscle helps in extending the thigh and flexing the leg. The short head of the biceps femoris muscle is responsible for flexing the leg. The adductor magnus muscle performs the actions of adducting, flexing, and extending the thigh. The sartorius and gracilis muscles have the ability to flex both the thigh and leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not located in the deep perineal space in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not located in the deep perineal space in males?

      Your Answer: Bulbourethral gland

      Explanation:

      The deep perineal space in males, also known as the deep perineal pouch, contains various structures involved in the male reproductive and urinary systems. These include the root of the penis, the dorsal nerve of the penis, the sphincter urethra, and the deep transverse perineal muscle.The bulbourethral gland, also known as Cowper’s gland, is not located within the deep perineal space. It is located in the superficial perineal pouch, situated on either side of the membranous urethra. These glands are responsible for producing a mucous secretion that contributes to lubrication of the urethra and neutralization of residual acidic urine in the urethra before ejaculation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old male suffered a Monteggia fracture after being hit during a basketball...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male suffered a Monteggia fracture after being hit during a basketball match. Upon your physical examination, you noted that he cannot perform the OK sign, and there is extension of the index DIP and thumb IP joint. Which of the following is primarily affected?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The Monteggia fracture is a type of forearm fracture that involves a fracture of the ulna bone along with a dislocation of the radial head. In this case, the patient suffered a Monteggia fracture after being hit during a basketball match.The inability to perform the OK sign and the extension of the index DIP (distal interphalangeal) joint and thumb IP (interphalangeal) joint suggest an injury to the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN). The AIN is a branch of the median nerve that innervates the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger, and pronator quadratus muscles.In a Monteggia fracture, the radial head dislocated, and the ulna bone fractures. The dislocation of the radial head can cause compression or stretching of the AIN, leading to its injury. This can result in weakness or paralysis of the muscles innervated by the AIN, including the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger.The inability to perform the OK sign, which requires flexion of the thumb IP joint and the index DIP joint, indicates weakness or paralysis of the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger. Therefore, the AIN is primarily affected in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 34-year-old man with a perforated gastric ulcer complains of excruciating pain in...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man with a perforated gastric ulcer complains of excruciating pain in his stomach. It is observed that the pain comes from peritoneal irritation by gastric contents in the lesser sac. Which of the following nerves contain sensory nerve fibers that convey this sharp, stabbing pain?

      Your Answer: Lower intercostal nerves

      Explanation:

      Pain felt from irritation of the peritoneum by stomach contents in the lesser sac is transmitted by lower intercostal nerves. The vagus nerves carry sensory fibers related to reflexes in the gastrointestinal tract. The greater splanchnic nerves and white rami communicantes transmit pain fibers from the stomach and other parts of the GI tract. The gray rami communicantes do not have sensory fibers but do contain sympathetic postganglionic fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old carpenter was wounded in his left arm by a utility knife...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old carpenter was wounded in his left arm by a utility knife and is brought to a local emergency department. He complains of numbness on the medial side of his arm. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Medial brachial cutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The medial brachial cutaneous nerve provides sensation to the skin on the inner part of the arm, while the axillary nerve supplies sensation to the outer part of the arm. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the outer part of the forearm as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve, and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve supplies the inner part of the forearm. The radial nerve gives rise to the posterior brachial and posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which structure forms the divide between vagal and pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure forms the divide between vagal and pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Junction between rectum and anus

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      The structure that forms the divide between vagal and pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic nerves is the splenic flexure. The vagal parasympathetic nerves originate from the vagus nerve, which is part of the cranial nerves and innervates organs in the thoracic and upper abdominal regions. On the other hand, the pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic nerves arise from the sacral spinal nerves and innervate organs in the lower abdominal and pelvic regions.The splenic flexure is a sharp bend in the colon located near the spleen. It is the point where the descending colon turns to become the transverse colon. This anatomical structure serves as a landmark that separates the innervation of the upper abdominal organs, which receive parasympathetic input from the vagus nerve, from the lower abdominal and pelvic organs, which receive parasympathetic input from the pelvic splanchnic nerves.Therefore, the splenic flexure acts as a boundary between the vagal and pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic nerves, demarcating the regions of the body that are innervated by each set of nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true regarding safe subclavian vein catheterization using the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding safe subclavian vein catheterization using the infraclavicular approach?

      Your Answer: Needle is inserted below the lower border of the clavicle at the junction of medial third and outer 2/3 of the clavicle and is pointed upward and posteriorly toward the middle suprasternal notch

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is: Needle is inserted below the lower border of the clavicle at the junction of medial third and outer 2/3 of the clavicle and is pointed downward and posteriorly toward the middle suprasternal notch.In safe subclavian vein catheterization using the infraclavicular approach, the needle is inserted below the lower border of the clavicle at the junction of the medial third and outer 2/3 of the clavicle. The direction of the needle is important to ensure safe and accurate placement of the catheter. The needle should be pointed downward and posteriorly toward the middle suprasternal notch. This direction allows for proper alignment with the subclavian vein and reduces the risk of complications such as pneumothorax or arterial puncture.The other options are incorrect because they describe incorrect directions for needle insertion. The needle should not be directed upward in the direction of the opposite nipple or downward in the direction of the opposite nipple. These directions would not align with the subclavian vein and could lead to complications. Additionally, the needle should not be pointed upward and posteriorly toward the middle suprasternal notch, as this would also not align with the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following structures is not supplied by the lateral plantar nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is not supplied by the lateral plantar nerve?

      Your Answer: Flexor digiti minimi

      Correct Answer: Adductor hallucis

      Explanation:

      The structure that is not supplied by the lateral plantar nerve is the Adductor hallucis. The lateral plantar nerve supplies the Flexor digitorum brevis, Quadratus plantae, and Flexor digiti minimi. The Adductor hallucis, on the other hand, is supplied by the deep branch of the lateral plantar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which structure related to the anatomic snuffbox is most likely to be damaged...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure related to the anatomic snuffbox is most likely to be damaged in a construction worker's destructive injury?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis tendon

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The anatomic snuffbox is a depression on the wrist radial side. It is defined by the tendons of certain muscles and the bones beneath it. The radial artery runs along the bottom of the snuffbox, while other structures are not associated with it. The boundaries of the snuffbox are formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles. The floor of the snuffbox is made up of the scaphoid and trapezium bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is not a tributary of the coronary sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a tributary of the coronary sinus?

      Your Answer: Anterior cardiac vein

      Correct Answer: Great and middle cardiac vein

      Explanation:

      The middle cardiac vein and the anterior cardiac vein are not tributaries of the coronary sinus. The middle cardiac vein usually drains into the great cardiac vein, which then empties into the coronary sinus. The anterior cardiac veins drain directly into the right atrium, not into the coronary sinus. The great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, and oblique vein of the left atrium are tributaries of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old woman who has had six children develops a weakness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman who has had six children develops a weakness of the urogenital diaphragm. Paralysis of which of the following muscles would cause such a symptom?

      Your Answer: Superficial transversus perinei

      Correct Answer: Sphincter urethrae

      Explanation:

      The urogenital diaphragm is made up of the sphincter urethrae and deep transverse perineal muscles. Weakening of the muscles, ligaments, and fasciae in the pelvic floor, including the pelvic diaphragm, urogenital diaphragm, and cardinal ligaments, can occur due to multiple childbirths, aging, and menopause. The pelvic diaphragm consists of the levator ani and coccygeus muscles. One of the superficial perineal muscles is the superficial transversus perinei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following structures will strictly pass through the cavernous sinus, along...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures will strictly pass through the cavernous sinus, along with the internal carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The structure that will strictly pass through the cavernous sinus, along with the internal carotid artery, is the Oculomotor nerve. The cavernous sinus is a dural venous sinus located on each side of the sella turcica, a bony structure in the skull. It contains several important structures, including the internal carotid artery and several cranial nerves.The Oculomotor nerve, also known as cranial nerve III, is responsible for controlling the movement of most of the muscles that move the eye. It originates from the midbrain and passes through the cavernous sinus along with the internal carotid artery.The other structures listed, such as the Abducens nerve, Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve, Trochlear nerve, and Maxillary nerve, may have some association with the cavernous sinus, but they do not strictly pass through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where is the tip of the orogastric tube located if it was inserted...

    Correct

    • Where is the tip of the orogastric tube located if it was inserted all the way to the 24-inch mark in a 57-year-old male who had an episode of hematemesis?

      Your Answer: Cardia of stomach

      Explanation:

      The tip of the orogastric tube would be located in the stomach if it was inserted all the way to the 24-inch mark. The orogastric tube is a medical device that is inserted through the mouth and into the stomach. In this case, the tube has been inserted to a specific length of 24 inches. The esophagus is the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach, so if the tube was inserted all the way to the 24-inch mark, it would have passed through the esophagus and entered the stomach. The cardia of the stomach is the area where the esophagus connects to the stomach, so the tube would have passed through this area as well. The pylorus is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, specifically the duodenum. Since the tube has not reached this point, it would not be located in the pylorus or the duodenum. The ileum is the final part of the small intestine, which is even further down the digestive tract and would not be reached by the orogastric tube in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is that the tip of the orogastric tube would be located in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old heavyweight boxer was punched on his mandible, resulting in a slight...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old heavyweight boxer was punched on his mandible, resulting in a slight subluxation (dislocation) of the atlantoaxial joint. The consequence of the injury was decreased range of motion at that joint. What movement would be most affected?

      Your Answer: Flexion

      Correct Answer: Rotation

      Explanation:

      The atlantoaxial joints are a type of synovial joint that includes two plane joints and one pivot joint. These joints are mainly responsible for rotating the head and do not allow for other types of movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - From which embryonic structures is the adult venous system derived, except for? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which embryonic structures is the adult venous system derived, except for?

      Your Answer: Sinus venosus

      Correct Answer: Umbilical vein

      Explanation:

      The Umbilical vein is an exception because it carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus during fetal development. However, it becomes functionally obsolete after birth, as it is no longer needed once the fetal circulation transitions to the adult circulation pattern. After birth, the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis, a fibrous remnant in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following veins in the arm is used for large vein...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following veins in the arm is used for large vein catheterization due to its increasing diameter as it goes proximally?

      Your Answer: Median cubital vein

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The vein in the arm that is used for large vein catheterization due to its increasing diameter as it goes proximally is the cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is one of the major superficial veins in the arm. It starts from the dorsal venous network on the back of the hand and runs along the lateral side of the arm. As it travels proximally, towards the shoulder, the diameter of the cephalic vein gradually increases. This makes it an ideal choice for large vein catheterization, as it can accommodate larger catheters and provide better blood flow.When performing large vein catheterization, healthcare professionals often choose the cephalic vein because of its accessibility and size. It is relatively easy to locate and palpate, making it a suitable option for procedures such as intravenous (IV) therapy, blood transfusions, or administering medications that require a larger vein.However, it is important to note that individual anatomy can vary, and in some cases, the basilic vein or the median cubital vein may be used for large vein catheterization instead. These veins also have increasing diameters as they go proximally, but the cephalic vein is generally the preferred choice due to its location and accessibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 49-year-old college football coach undergoes a radical prostatectomy for a malignant tumor...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old college football coach undergoes a radical prostatectomy for a malignant tumor in his prostate. Following surgery, he is incapable of achieving an erection. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Posterior scrotal nerve

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerve

      Explanation:

      The pelvic splanchnic nerve contains parasympathetic preganglionic fibers that cause the penis to become erect. On the other hand, the sacral splanchnic nerve contains sympathetic preganglionic fibers that are responsible for ejaculation. The pudendal nerve supplies the external anal sphincter and perineal muscles, as well as provides sensory fibers to the perineal region. The dorsal nerve of the penis, which is a branch of the pudendal nerve, is responsible for providing sensation to the penis. Lastly, the posterior scrotal nerves are superficial branches of the pudendal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is not true about the quadrangular membrane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not true about the quadrangular membrane?

      Your Answer: The vestibular ligament/fold forms the free inferior margin

      Correct Answer: The vestibular fold forms the false vocal cord

      Explanation:

      The false vocal cord is actually formed by the ventricular fold, which is located above the true vocal cord. The vestibular ligament/fold forms the free inferior margin: This statement is not true. The vestibular ligament is part of the vestibular fold (false vocal cord), but it does not form the free inferior margin of the quadrangular membrane. Instead, the inferior margin of the quadrangular membrane is connected to the lateral aspect of the thyroid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - To which vertebra does the Ligament of Treitz correspond? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which vertebra does the Ligament of Treitz correspond?

      Your Answer: L3

      Correct Answer: L2

      Explanation:

      The Ligament of Treitz corresponds to the L2 vertebra. This ligament is also known as the suspensory ligament of the duodenum and it attaches the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to the posterior abdominal wall. It is an important anatomical structure that helps to support and stabilize the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with rupture of the penile...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with rupture of the penile urethra. Extravasated urine from this injury can spread into which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Pelvic cavity

      Correct Answer: Scrotum

      Explanation:

      Urine that leaks from the urethra in the penis can spread to various areas such as the perineal space, scrotum, penis, and front of the abdomen. However, it does not reach the testis, ischiorectal fossa, pelvic cavity, or thigh because Scarpa’s fascia is firmly attached to the thigh fascia lata, preventing the urine from spreading to those areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which artery is most likely to be injured during pelvic surgery when severe...

    Incorrect

    • Which artery is most likely to be injured during pelvic surgery when severe bleeding is observed from the artery within the true pelvis?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal artery

      Correct Answer: Uterine artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery is the only artery among the listed ones that stays within the pelvic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the blood cell component with the longest half-life? ...

    Correct

    • What is the blood cell component with the longest half-life?

      Your Answer: Rbc

      Explanation:

      The blood cell component with the longest half-life is the red blood cell (RBC). Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body’s tissues and removing carbon dioxide. They have a lifespan of approximately 120 days in the circulation before they are removed by the spleen and liver. This long half-life is due to the unique structure and function of red blood cells.On the other hand, other blood cell components such as basophils, platelets, and neutrophils have much shorter half-lives. Basophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and inflammation, and they have a half-life of only a few hours. Platelets, which are responsible for blood clotting, have a half-life of about 7-10 days. Neutrophils, another type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, have a half-life of only a few hours to a few days.Therefore, the red blood cell component has the longest half-life among these options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The hilum of the right kidney contains all of the following important structures,...

    Incorrect

    • The hilum of the right kidney contains all of the following important structures, except?

      Your Answer: Sympathetic nerve fibers

      Correct Answer: Part of the right suprarenal gland

      Explanation:

      The hilum of the right kidney contains all of the following important structures, except part of the right suprarenal gland.The hilum is a depression on the medial side of the kidney where the renal vessels and ureter enter and exit the kidney. It contains the following structures:Renal pelvis: This is the funnel-shaped structure that collects urine from the collecting ducts of the kidney.Tributaries of right renal vein: These are the veins that drain blood from the kidney.Sympathetic nerve fibers: These fibers control the blood flow to the kidney.Branches of the right renal artery: These are the arteries that supply blood to the kidney.The suprarenal gland is located on top of the kidney, but it is not part of the hilum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 54-year-old woman with known kidney disease presents to a hospital because her...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with known kidney disease presents to a hospital because her pain has become increasingly more severe. A physician performing kidney surgery must remember that:

      Your Answer: The renal fascia does not surround the suprarenal gland

      Correct Answer: The left renal vein runs anterior to both the aorta and the left renal artery

      Explanation:

      The left renal vein is positioned in front of both the aorta and the left renal artery. The renal fascia is located outside of the perirenal fat and inside the pararenal fat, and it also encloses the suprarenal gland. The right renal artery is situated behind the IVC and is longer than the left renal artery. Due to the significant size of the right lobe of the liver, the right kidney is slightly lower in position compared to the left kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the most common anatomical location of the esophageal tear in Boerhaave's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common anatomical location of the esophageal tear in Boerhaave's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Left distal esophagus

      Correct Answer: Right distal esophagus

      Explanation:

      The most common anatomical location of the esophageal tear in Boerhaave’s syndrome is in the left posterolateral aspect of the distal esophagus. Boerhaave’s syndrome, also known as spontaneous esophageal rupture, is a rare but life-threatening condition characterized by a full-thickness tear in the esophageal wall. It typically occurs as a result of a sudden increase in intraesophageal pressure, such as severe vomiting or retching.The left posterolateral aspect of the distal esophagus is the most common site of the tear because this area is relatively weak compared to other parts of the esophagus. The esophagus is composed of several layers, including the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, and adventitia. The muscularis propria, which consists of inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle layers, is particularly thin in the distal esophagus, making it more susceptible to rupture.Additionally, the left posterolateral aspect of the distal esophagus is anatomically closer to the heart, which can contribute to the severity of the condition. When the tear occurs, it can lead to the leakage of gastric contents into the mediastinum, causing mediastinitis, which is a serious infection that can spread to the heart and other vital structures.It is important to note that while the left posterolateral aspect of the distal esophagus is the most common site of tear in Boerhaave’s syndrome, tears can also occur in other parts of the esophagus, including the proximal esophagus or the right posterolateral aspect. The exact location of the tear may vary depending on the individual and the specific circumstances leading to the rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Where do the deep cervical lymph nodes lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the deep cervical lymph nodes lie?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The deep cervical lymph nodes lie in close proximity to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which is located on the sides of the neck. They are situated deep to the muscle and can be palpated by gently pressing on the area. The common carotid artery, external jugular vein, and internal jugular vein are also located in the neck region, but they are not directly associated with the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds

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