PLE-3586

PLE-3586

A 22-year-old male initially complains of bilateral foot and hand tingling. The symptoms then rapidly progressed over a week to include lower extremity weakness. He is brought to the clinic because he is no longer able to ambulate. On physical examination, motor strength is 0/5 on both lower extremities, reflexes are decreased, and the rest of the neurological examination was unremarkable. Lumbar puncture revealed mildly elevated protein with no cells and normal glucose. A few weeks prior, the patient reported having stomach flu. What is the most likely infectious trigger of the patient’s condition?